ABEAM
An aircraft is “abeam” a fix, point, or object when that fix, point, or object is approximately 90 degrees to the right or left of the aircraft track. Abeam indicates a general position rather than a precise point.
116 terms, the FAA marks frequently used, no curation. Definitions reproduced verbatim from the FAA Pilot/Controller Glossary, effective 7/9/26.
Download the PDF — the same 116 terms as a two-column printable sheet.
ABEAM. Card 1 of 116. 0 got it. Press space to show the definition.
Term 1 of 116
ABEAM
1 of 116 · 0 got it
Keyboard: space or enter shows the definition, 1 is Again, 2 is Got it. Got-it marks are kept in this browser only; Start over clears them.
An aircraft is “abeam” a fix, point, or object when that fix, point, or object is approximately 90 degrees to the right or left of the aircraft track. Abeam indicates a general position rather than a precise point.
To terminate a preplanned aircraft maneuver; e.g., an aborted takeoff.
Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
Tell me what you plan to do.
Yes.
A concise description of an occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena that may affect the safety of aircraft operations, but at intensities lower than those that require the issuance of a SIGMET. An AIRMET may be issued when any of the following weather phenomena are occurring or expected to occur:
SeeCWA
SeeGRAPHICAL AIRMEN'S METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
SeeSAW
SeeSIGMET
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
An aircraft's altitude, transmitted via the Mode C transponder feature, that is visually displayed in 100‐foot increments on a radar scope having readout capability.
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
Adherence to previously imposed altitude restrictions is no longer required during a climb or descent.
The recommended speed contained in aircraft manuals used by pilots when making an approach to landing. This speed will vary for different segments of an approach as well as for aircraft weight and configuration.
Any of the following:
SeeMINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE
SeeMINIMUM IFR ALTITUDE
SeeMINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE
SeeMINIMUM VECTORING ALTITUDE
Any of the following:
SeeMINIMUM EN ROUTE IFR ALTITUDE
SeeMINIMUM IFR ALTITUDE
SeeMINIMUM OBSTRUCTION CLEARANCE ALTITUDE
SeeMINIMUM VECTORING ALTITUDE
A term used by air traffic controllers to taxi an aircraft on the runway opposite to the traffic flow. The aircraft may be instructed to back‐taxi to the beginning of the runway or at some point before reaching the runway end for the purpose of departure or to exit the runway.
The FAA’s definition of TRANSMITTING IN THE BLIND
A transmission from one station to other stations in circumstances where two‐way communication cannot be established, but where it is believed that the called stations may be able to receive the transmission.
Phraseology used to indicate that a radio transmission has been distorted or interrupted due to multiple simultaneous radio transmissions.
A report of conditions on the airport movement area providing a pilot with a degree/quality of braking to expect. Braking action is reported in terms of good, good to medium, medium, medium to poor, poor, or nil.
SeeRUNWAY CONDITION REPORT
SeeRUNWAY CONDITION CODES
An aircraft flown in proximity to another aircraft normally to observe its performance during training or testing.
Used by ATC to inform the pilot that he/she must circle to land because the runway in use is other than the runway aligned with the instrument approach procedure. When the direction of the circling maneuver in relation to the airport/runway is required, the controller will state the direction (eight cardinal compass points) and specify a left or right downwind or base leg as appropriate; e.g., “Cleared VOR Runway Three Six Approach circle to Runway Two Two,” or “Circle northwest of the airport for a right downwind to Runway Two Two.”
SeeCIRCLE‐TO‐LAND MANEUVER
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
The FAA’s definition of AIR TRAFFIC CLEARANCE
An authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace. The pilot‐in‐command of an aircraft may not deviate from the provisions of a visual flight rules (VFR) or instrument flight rules (IFR) air traffic clearance except in an emergency or unless an amended clearance has been obtained. Additionally, the pilot may request a different clearance from that which has been issued by air traffic control (ATC) if information available to the pilot makes another course of action more practicable or if aircraft equipment limitations or company procedures forbid compliance with the clearance issued. Pilots may also request clarification or amendment, as appropriate, any time a clearance is not fully understood, or considered unacceptable because of safety of flight. Controllers should, in such instances and to the extent of operational practicality and safety, honor the pilot's request. 14 CFR part 91.3(a) states: “The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.” THE PILOT IS RESPONSIBLE TO REQUEST AN AMENDED CLEARANCE if ATC issues a clearance that would cause a pilot to deviate from a rule or regulation, or in the pilot's opinion, would place the aircraft in jeopardy.
SeeICAO term AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL CLEARANCE
Used by ATC to advise an aircraft that the departure release is automatically canceled if takeoff is not made prior to a specified time. The expiration of a clearance void time does not cancel the departure clearance or IFR flight plan. It withdraws the pilot's authority to depart IFR until a new departure release/release time has been issued by ATC. Pilots who choose to depart VFR after their clearance void time has expired should not depart using the previously assigned IFR transponder code.
SeeICAO term CLEARANCE VOID TIME
ATC authorization for an aircraft to execute any standard or special instrument approach procedure for that airport. Normally, an aircraft will be cleared for a specific instrument approach procedure.
SeeCLEARED (Type of APPROACH.)
SeeINSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE
Refer to14 CFR part 91
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
ATC authorization for an aircraft to execute a specific instrument approach procedure to an airport; e.g., “Cleared ILS Runway Three Six Approach.”
SeeINSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE
Refer to14 CFR part 91
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
Means the aircraft is cleared to proceed in accordance with the route of flight filed in the flight plan. This clearance does not include the altitude, DP, or DP Transition.
SeeREQUEST FULL ROUTE CLEARANCE
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
ATC authorization for an aircraft to depart. It is predicated on known traffic and known physical airport conditions.
ATC authorization for an aircraft to make a touch‐and‐go, low approach, missed approach, stop and go, or full stop landing at the discretion of the pilot. It is normally used in training so that an instructor can evaluate a student's performance under changing situations. Pilots should advise ATC if they decide to remain on the runway, of any delay in their stop and go, delay clearing the runway, or are unable to comply with the instruction(s).
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
ATC authorization for an aircraft to make intermediate stops at specified airports without refiling a flight plan while en route to the clearance limit.
ATC authorization for an aircraft to land. It is predicated on known traffic and known physical airport conditions.
ATC authorization for an aircraft to climb to VFR conditions within Class B, C, D, and E surface areas when the only weather limitation is restricted visibility. The aircraft must remain clear of clouds while climbing to VFR.
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
An ATC instruction that requires an aircraft being vectored back onto an arrival or departure procedure to comply with all altitude and/or speed restrictions depicted on the procedure. This term may be used in lieu of repeating each remaining restriction that appears on the procedure.
An approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, having an air traffic control authorization, operating clear of clouds with at least 1 mile flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those conditions, may deviate from the instrument approach procedure and proceed to the destination airport by visual reference to the surface. This approach will only be authorized when requested by the pilot and the reported ground visibility at the destination airport is at least 1 statute mile.
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
When used as a control instruction should be followed by another word or words clarifying what is expected of the pilot. Example: “continue taxi,” “continue descent,” “continue inbound,” etc.
A weather advisory concerning convective weather significant to the safety of all aircraft. Convective SIGMETs are issued for tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms of any intensity level, areas of thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 with an area coverage of 4/10 (40%) or more, and hail 3/4 inch or greater.
SeeAIRMET
SeeCWA
SeeGRAPHICAL AIRMEN'S METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
SeeSAW
SeeSIGMET
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
Used by ATC when a specific altitude restriction at a specified fix is required.
Used by ATC when an altitude restriction at a specified fix is required. It does not prohibit the aircraft from crossing the fix at a higher altitude than specified; however, the higher altitude may not be one that will violate a succeeding altitude restriction or altitude assignment.
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
Used by ATC when a maximum crossing altitude at a specific fix is required. It does not prohibit the aircraft from crossing the fix at a lower altitude; however, it must be at or above the minimum IFR altitude.
SeeMINIMUM IFR ALTITUDES
Refer to14 CFR part 91
Used in an ATC clearance to authorize a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the clearance. The pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude within this block of airspace. Climb/descent within the block is to be made at the discretion of the pilot. However, once the pilot starts descent and verbally reports leaving an altitude in the block, he/she may not return to that altitude without additional ATC clearance. Further, it is approval for the pilot to proceed to and make an approach at destination airport and can be used in conjunction with:
Used by ATC to inform a pilot when an accurate estimate of the delay time and the reason for the delay cannot immediately be determined; e.g., a disabled aircraft on the runway, terminal or center area saturation, weather below landing minimums, etc.
Straight line flight between two navigational aids, fixes, points, or any combination thereof. When used by pilots in describing off‐airway routes, points defining direct route segments become compulsory reporting points unless the aircraft is under radar contact.
A distress or an urgency condition.
Instructions issued to a pilot making an instrument approach which means continue inbound to the missed approach point and execute the missed approach procedure as described on the Instrument Approach Procedure Chart or as previously assigned by ATC. The pilot may climb immediately to the altitude specified in the missed approach procedure upon making a missed approach. No turns should be initiated prior to reaching the missed approach point. When conducting an ASR or PAR approach, execute the assigned missed approach procedure immediately upon receiving instructions to “execute missed approach.”
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
Used under certain conditions to provide a pilot with an altitude to be used in the event of two‐way communications failure. It also provides altitude information to assist the pilot in planning.
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
The time a pilot can expect to receive clearance beyond a clearance limit.
Used to inform a pilot of the routing he/she can expect if any part of the route beyond a short range clearance limit differs from that filed.
Used by ATC when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation. Expedite climb/descent normally indicates to a pilot that the approximate best rate of climb/descent should be used without requiring an exceptional change in aircraft handling characteristics.
Commonly used to mean that an aircraft is on the final approach course or is aligned with a landing area.
SeeFINAL APPROACH‐IFR
A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. Each is stated in three digits that represent hundreds of feet. For example, flight level (FL) 250 represents a barometric altimeter indication of 25,000 feet; FL 255, an indication of 25,500 feet.
SeeICAO term FLIGHT LEVEL
The FAA’s definition of REQUEST FULL ROUTE CLEARANCE
Used by pilots to request that the entire route of flight be read verbatim in an ATC clearance. Such request should be made to preclude receiving an ATC clearance based on the original filed flight plan when a filed IFR flight plan has been revised by the pilot, company, or operations prior to departure.
Proceed with your message. Not to be used for any other purpose.
Instructions for a pilot to abandon his/her approach to landing. Additional instructions may follow. Unless otherwise advised by ATC, a VFR aircraft or an aircraft conducting visual approach should overfly the runway while climbing to traffic pattern altitude and enter the traffic pattern via the crosswind leg. A pilot on an IFR flight plan making an instrument approach should execute the published missed approach procedure or proceed as instructed by ATC; e.g., “Go around” (additional instructions if required).
SeeLOW APPROACH
Used by pilots to inform ATC that they have received runway, wind, and altimeter information only.
The FAA’s definition of AIRCRAFT CLASSES
For the purposes of Wake Turbulence Separation Minima, ATC classifies aircraft as Super, Heavy, Large, and Small as follows:
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
Flight toward a NAVAID, without correcting for wind, by adjusting the aircraft heading to maintain a relative bearing of zero degrees.
SeeBEARING
SeeICAO term HOMING
A question relating to the quality of the transmission or to determine how well the transmission is being received.
The message will be repeated.
A request for a pilot to activate the aircraft transponder identification feature. This will help the controller to confirm an aircraft identity or to identify an aircraft.
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
Used by ATC in radar approaches to prefix procedures which should be followed by the pilot in event of lost communications.
Used by ATC or pilots when such action compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation.
The FAA’s definition of SPEED ADJUSTMENT
An ATC procedure used to request pilots to adjust aircraft speed to a specific value for the purpose of providing desired spacing. Pilots are expected to maintain a speed of plus or minus 10 knots or 0.02 Mach number of the specified speed. Examples of speed adjustments are:
SeeSAFETY ALERT
The FAA’s definition of SAFETY ALERT
A safety alert issued by ATC to aircraft under their control if ATC is aware the aircraft is at an altitude which, in the controller's judgment, places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. The controller may discontinue the issuance of further alerts if the pilot advises he/she is taking action to correct the situation or has the other aircraft in sight.
Used by ATC to inform a pilot to alter his/her traffic pattern so as to make a short final approach.
The international radiotelephony distress signal. When repeated three times, it indicates imminent and grave danger and that immediate assistance is requested.
SeePAN‐PAN
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
SeeMISSED APPROACH POINT
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
The FAA’s definition of MISSED APPROACH POINT (MAP)
A point prescribed in each instrument approach procedure at which a missed approach procedure must be executed if the required visual reference does not exist.
(When used with communication transfer) listen on a specific frequency and stand by for instructions. Under normal circumstances do not establish communications.
“No,” or “permission not granted,” or “that is not correct.”
Used by pilots to inform ATC that:
A radar approach/vector provided in case of a malfunctioning gyro‐compass or directional gyro. Instead of providing the pilot with headings to be flown, the controller observes the radar track and issues control instructions “turn right/left” or “stop turn” as appropriate.
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
The FAA’s definition of NO GYRO APPROACH
A radar approach/vector provided in case of a malfunctioning gyro‐compass or directional gyro. Instead of providing the pilot with headings to be flown, the controller observes the radar track and issues control instructions “turn right/left” or “stop turn” as appropriate.
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
The NTZ is a 2,000 foot wide zone, located equidistant between parallel runway or SOIA final approach courses, in which flight is normally not allowed.
Aircraft that cannot or do not communicate by radio when radio communication is required are referred to as “NORDO.”
A traffic advisory issued by ATC to advise pilots that targets on the radar scope are too numerous to issue individually.
A term used to describe a situation where an aircraft has reported a position fix or is observed on radar at a point not on the ATC‐approved route of flight.
SeeON‐COURSE INDICATION
The FAA’s definition of ON‐COURSE INDICATION
COURSE INDICATION- An indication on an instrument, which provides the pilot a visual means of determining that the aircraft is located on the centerline of a given navigational track, or an indication on a radar scope that an aircraft is on a given track.
The conversation is ended and no response is expected.
My transmission is ended; I expect a response.
When used in conjunction with altitude assignments, means that ATC has offered the pilot the option of starting climb or descent whenever he/she wishes and conducting the climb or descent at any rate he/she wishes. He/she may temporarily level off at any intermediate altitude. However, once he/she has vacated an altitude, he/she may not return to that altitude.
SeeATC SURVEILLANCE SOURCE
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
SeeICAO term RADAR CONTACT
The FAA’s definition of RADAR CONTACT LOST
Used by ATC to inform a pilot that the surveillance data used to determine the aircraft's position is no longer being received, or is no longer reliable and radar service is no longer being provided. The loss may be attributed to several factors including the aircraft merging with weather or ground clutter, the aircraft operating below radar line of sight coverage, the aircraft entering an area of poor radar return, failure of the aircraft's equipment, or failure of the surveillance equipment.
SeeCLUTTER
The FAA’s definition of RADAR FLIGHT FOLLOWING
The observation of the progress of radar-identified aircraft, whose primary navigation is being provided by the pilot, wherein the controller retains and correlates the aircraft identity with the appropriate target or target symbol displayed on the radar scope.
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
The FAA’s definition of RADAR SERVICE
A term which encompasses one or more of the following services based on the use of radar which can be provided by a controller to a pilot of a radar identified aircraft.
SeeICAO term RADAR SERVICE
Used by ATC to inform a pilot that the surveillance data used to determine the aircraft's position is no longer being received, or is no longer reliable and radar service is no longer being provided. The loss may be attributed to several factors including the aircraft merging with weather or ground clutter, the aircraft operating below radar line of sight coverage, the aircraft entering an area of poor radar return, failure of the aircraft's equipment, or failure of the surveillance equipment.
SeeCLUTTER
Used by ATC to inform a pilot that he/she will no longer be provided any of the services that could be received while in radar contact. Radar service is automatically terminated, and the pilot is not advised in the following cases:
Repeat my message back to me.
The FAA’s definition of SPEED ADJUSTMENT
An ATC procedure used to request pilots to adjust aircraft speed to a specific value for the purpose of providing desired spacing. Pilots are expected to maintain a speed of plus or minus 10 knots or 0.02 Mach number of the specified speed. Examples of speed adjustments are:
Used to instruct pilots to advise ATC of specified information; e.g., “Report passing Hamilton VOR.”
Used by pilots to request that the entire route of flight be read verbatim in an ATC clearance. Such request should be made to preclude receiving an ATC clearance based on the original filed flight plan when a filed IFR flight plan has been revised by the pilot, company, or operations prior to departure.
Used by ATC to advise a pilot to resume an aircraft's normal operating speed. It is issued to terminate a speed adjustment where no published speed restrictions apply. It does not delete speed restrictions in published procedures of upcoming segments of flight. This does not relieve the pilot of those speed restrictions that are applicable to 14 CFR section 91.117.
Used by ATC to advise a pilot to resume his/her own navigational responsibility. It is issued after completion of a radar vector or when radar contact is lost while the aircraft is being radar vectored.
SeeRADAR SERVICE TERMINATED.
Used by ATC to advise a pilot to resume published speed restrictions that are applicable to a SID, STAR, or other instrument procedure. It is issued to terminate a speed adjustment where speed restrictions are published on a charted procedure.
I have received all of your last transmission. It should not be used to answer a question requiring a yes or a no answer.
SeeAFFIRMATIVE
SeeNEGATIVE
The magnetic direction that corresponds with the runway centerline extended, not the painted runway number. When cleared to “fly or maintain runway heading,” pilots are expected to fly or maintain the heading that corresponds with the extended centerline of the departure runway. Drift correction must not be applied; e.g., Runway 4, actual magnetic heading of the runway centerline 044, fly 044.
Used to request a repeat of the last transmission. Usually specifies transmission or portion thereof not understood or received; e.g., “Say again all after ABRAM VOR.”
Used by ATC to ascertain an aircraft's specific altitude/flight level. When the aircraft is climbing or descending, the pilot should state the indicated altitude rounded to the nearest 100 feet.
Used by ATC to request an aircraft heading. The pilot should state the actual heading of the aircraft.
A weather advisory issued concerning weather significant to the safety of all aircraft. SIGMET advisories cover severe and extreme turbulence, severe icing, and widespread dust or sandstorms that reduce visibility to less than 3 miles.
SeeAIRMET
SeeCWA
SeeGRAPHICAL AIRMEN'S METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
SeeICAO term SIGMET INFORMATION
SeeSAW
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
SeeSIGMET
The FAA’s definition of SIGMET
A weather advisory issued concerning weather significant to the safety of all aircraft. SIGMET advisories cover severe and extreme turbulence, severe icing, and widespread dust or sandstorms that reduce visibility to less than 3 miles.
SeeAIRMET
SeeCWA
SeeGRAPHICAL AIRMEN'S METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION
SeeICAO term SIGMET INFORMATION
SeeSAW
📖Refer toAIM (opens in new tab) ↗
Used in verbal communications as a request to reduce speech rate.
Used by ATC to instruct a pilot to activate the aircraft transponder and ADS-B Out with altitude reporting enabled, or (military) to activate only specific modes, codes, or functions. Examples: “Squawk five seven zero seven;” “Squawk three/alpha, two one zero five.”
SeeTRANSPONDER
Means the controller or pilot must pause for a few seconds, usually to attend to other duties of a higher priority. Also means to wait as in “stand by for clearance.” The caller should reestablish contact if a delay is lengthy. “Stand by” is not an approval or denial.
Used by ATC to instruct a pilot to turn off the automatic altitude reporting feature of the aircraft transponder and ADS-B Out. It is issued when a verbally reported altitude varies by 300 feet or more from the automatic altitude report.
SeeTRANSPONDER
SeeSTOP STREAM
The FAA’s definition of STOP STREAM
Used by ATC to request a pilot to suspend electronic attack activity.
SeeJAMMING
SeeSTOP STREAM
The FAA’s definition of STOP STREAM
Used by ATC to request a pilot to suspend electronic attack activity.
SeeJAMMING
Used by ATC to instruct a pilot to stop transponder and ADS-B transmissions, or to turn off only specified functions of the aircraft transponder (military).
SeeTRANSPONDER
Used by ATC to request a pilot to suspend electronic attack activity.
SeeJAMMING
The understanding you have is right.
SeeSAFETY ALERT
The FAA’s definition of SAFETY ALERT
A safety alert issued by ATC to aircraft under their control if ATC is aware the aircraft is at an altitude which, in the controller's judgment, places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. The controller may discontinue the issuance of further alerts if the pilot advises he/she is taking action to correct the situation or has the other aircraft in sight.
Used by pilots to inform a controller that previously issued traffic is in sight.
Indicates that the traffic described in a previously issued traffic advisory is no factor.
Indicates that the traffic described in a previously issued traffic advisory is no longer depicted on radar, but may still be a factor.
A transmission from one station to other stations in circumstances where two‐way communication cannot be established, but where it is believed that the called stations may be able to receive the transmission.
Indicates inability to comply with a specific instruction, request, or clearance.
Request confirmation of information; e.g., “verify assigned altitude.”
Used by ATC to ascertain an aircraft's direction of takeoff and/or direction of turn after takeoff. It is normally used for IFR departures from an airport not having a control tower. When direct communication with the pilot is not possible, the request and information may be relayed through an FSS, dispatcher, or by other means.
Weather conditions equal to or better than the minimum for flight under visual flight rules. The term may be used as an ATC clearance/instruction only when:
An advisory provided by a flight service station to a pilot during a preflight or inflight weather briefing that flight under visual flight rules is not recommended. To be given when the current and/or forecast weather conditions are at or below VFR minimums. It does not abrogate the pilot's authority to make his/her own decision.
ATC authorization for an IFR aircraft to operate in VFR conditions at any appropriate VFR altitude (as specified in 14 CFR and as restricted by ATC). A pilot receiving this authorization must comply with the VFR visibility, distance from cloud criteria, and the minimum IFR altitudes specified in 14 CFR part 91. The use of this term does not relieve controllers of their responsibility to separate aircraft in Class B and Class C airspace or TRSAs as required by FAA Order JO 7110.65.
I have received your message, understand it, and will comply with it.
Source. Definitions: FAA Pilot/Controller Glossary, effective 7/9/26, reproduced verbatim from https://www.faa.gov/Air_traffic/publications/atpubs/pcg_html/index.html. A United States Government work. Selection: none — this is every entry the FAA itself flags as frequently used. Check the current publication before you rely on any of it.